Two separate but related queries:
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Is there any reason why a post-death severance of a jointly held shareholding (husband and wife) would not be effective for tax purposes? (Subject to the same being done within two years of death, of course)? I don’t think it is an issue, but a professional colleague does not think that it will work.
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Family company - the only asset that would require a grant is a shareholding in the company X Ltd. The directors and all other shareholders are members of the family, and there is no dispute over the terms of the Will that T’s share pass to the spouse. Need a grant be obtained solely for this? IHT is not going to be an issue because BPR would apply.
Many thanks
Damian Lines
Rubin Lewis O’Brien