Dear all, a nice easy question I hope! An estate of a deceased has a property with a mortgage, and an ex-wife will be benefitting from the estate due to the fact the deceased never paid a divorce settlement. It looks like the whole estate after debts are paid etc., will go to the ex-wife. Under divorce law, it looks like no SDLT is payable where there is also finance needed to take the property. However, under inheritance law, it is my understanding that SDLT would be payable, where finance is needed to keep the asset.
As the payment is in effect the repayment of an estate debt (the divorce settlement that was never paid), does this also escape SDLT? The ex-wife is likely to arrange a loan to repay the current mortgage (which is a buy to let mortgage and the lender will not agree to let her move there with that loan as her main residence). Just to complicate things a little, the deceased was not UK domiciled (but was resident) and the beneficiary is non domiciled as well, and the divorce settlement was in Europe, but a UK court hearing did rule it could be enforced in the UK. The Will was a discretionary trust. Thank you!