I act in an estate where the only asset is a house which, being in a prime position in a popular Cornish seaside town has attracted, now that it is on the market, a price substantially more than probate value. Creditors and non-charity legatees will have to be paid out of the sale proceeds with the balance going to charitable beneficiaries.
Contracts for the sale of the house have not yet been exchanged and one of the charities has written to me suggesting a partial appropriation of the house, in order to assist the charities over the question of CGT. Partial appropriation of a share portfolio I can understand but I have never come across before the suggestion of .partial appropriation of a single indivisible asset. Has anyone else, please?
David Lush
Cornish Venning Ltd