I would be grateful for thoughts/opinions on the interpretation of a will clause defining “my Estate” as:-
“all my real and personal property of every kind wherever situate over which I have a general power of appointment; and
the money investments and property from time to time representing all such property”
Is it considered that this definition is sufficient to pass not only those assets under which the deceased may have had a general power of appointment, but also those assets legally and beneficially belonging to them at the time of their death (i.e. the assets the deceased did not have an express general power of appointment over).