I have a query that I believe I know the answer to but it seems to be illogical and I would welcome input, particularly if I have missed something.
Scenario - trust set up by deemed dom settlor who became non-resident before 24/25 and ceased to be a long-term resident from 6 April 2025. Trust held solely UK situs assets so no exit charge on 6 April 2025. Trustees are considering divesting of UK assets and acquiring non-UK situs assets and appointing said non-UK situs assets out of the trust before the first 10-year anniversary in 2029. I believe there is no exit charge at all in this circumstance as all assets are excluded property.
S65(7) IHTA 1984 as amended by Finance Act 2025 still states that there is no exit charge on property becoming excluded property (because it ceases to be situated in the UK and the settlor is not long-term resident). Therefore, no exit charge arises on the conversion from UK to non-UK. Subsequently, as the property being appointed out of the trust is excluded property, there is no exit charge when it is appointed from the trust to the beneficiary.
Compare this to a settlor of a trust in the same situation except that trust happened to already own the non-UK property as at 6 April 2025. There would have been an exit charge at that point.under s65(1). No exclusion under s65(7) as the property didnât âcease to be situated in the UKâ - it always was foreign property. Why should this scenario suffer a charge when the earlier scenario does not?
Taking it to the extremes, a client could have switched to UK situs assets as at 6 April 2025 to avoid the exit charge and then reinvested into non-UK assets a week later to avoid the charge.
Am I missing something?