IHT38 Joitn Property

Am I correct in thinking that Joint Ownership Discount automatcially gets cancelled if you apply for a Loss on Sale using form IHT38?

Martyn Dixon
Harold Bell Infields & Co

In effect, yes, as s.191(1) IHTA 1984 requires the sale value to be included on the IHT38 claim.

Paul Saunders FCIB TEP

Independent Trust Consultant

Providing support and advice to fellow professionals

Continuing with this thread, the position is, the IHT400 was submitted reflecting the deceased’s interest in the property as £207,000 (he owned 1/3rd), less 15% discount for joint ownership property, as (rightly or wrongly), the property is jointly held with his late wife, whose Will left him a life interest in the property and thereafter to her beneficiaries.

I also included the wife’s 2/3rds in the IHT18, valued at £414,000, less the 15% joint ownership discount.

HMRC appear to have accepted the position.

I do not now wish to claim loss on sale for the deceased share (now worth £185,000), as the loss of the joint ownership discount is more than the decrease in value. However, it does seem to me I can state in the C4 Corrective Account that the Interest in the trust element has reduced from £414,000 to £370,000, but I do not want to unnecessarily rock the boat, or claim somehting which I am not able to claim.

Has anyone else experienced a similar dilemma?

Martyn Dixon
Harold Bell Infields & Co

Forgive me for following his up, but I just wondered if anyone had any views on how best to approach this?

Martyn Dixon
Harold Bell Infields & Co

My view is that the claims for loss on sale of land by the trustees is separate to the one by the executors so i can see no reason why one cannot be done without the other.

I cant quite see the logic in the first sentence of your 4th Para but also i think your starting position is flawed (even though HMRC has accepted it) as there should be no discount for the joint ownership in either as the property as a whole is in the deceased’s estate for IHT purposes.

I don’t see how substituting £185k for £207k (assuming £207k is after the discount so value for the whole would be £690k) puts you in a worse position unless i am missing something very obvious

I’m confused as to a discussion on valuation discounts where the land was held partly by the deceased and in which the deceased also had a life interest as provided under the spouse’s earlier death.

Malcolm Finney

  1. How can there be any discount when the deceased owned or is deemed to have owned interests that add up to 100%?
  2. In a case where the deceased owned or is deemed to have owned less than 100% then any discount is a matter for the valuer and not for executors to apply. For example if the deceased owned a 50% interest in Blackacre, the executors should instruct the valuer to value a 50% interest in Blackacre. They shouldn’t ask for a valuation of the entirety and then for the executors to take somewhere (usually) between 42.5% and 45% of that valuation as the PV. Also a discount is not always appropriate.