I am advising a widow whose recently deceased husband’s will leaves his 50% share of the marital home on what I believe to be a ‘Trust For Sale’. The Trustees have the power to postpone the sale and allow my client to reside free of charge in the property as long as she wishes and the property can’t be sold during that period without the consent of the beneficiary.
Is this sufficient to give the widow a Life Interest and make this Trust an IPDI? My initial conclusion is that it is but confirmation would be welcome.
The terms of the Trust then go on to say that the beneficiary can request the Trustees to sell the property and invest the proceeds in another property of her choice however, on the first sale a sum of £60,000 is to be paid to his daughter (my client’s step daughter). In addition, if the whole of the proceeds of sale are not reinvested into the new property they are to pass into residue.
On my client’s death, remarriage or if she decided that she no longer wishes to reside in the property, the Trustees must sell and the proceeds pass to a second Trust created to receive his residuary Estate and of which my client is given a Life Interest. I am satisfied that this is an IPDI.
If I am correct in treating the first Trust as an IPDI then I think that if my client chose to sell the property the £60,000 gift to her stepdaughter would be a PET by my client - does anyone have a differing view?
Any comments or different interpretations gratefully received.
Nicola