Is this a Waiver of a Loan, or a Gift?

Hi everyone,

I’m hoping someone can help me with this query which has arisen on one of my Probate files.

A loan of £50,000 (plus interest) was made by the Deceased to her son’s business in 2002. The loan was secured by way of a charge registered at the Land Registry against the title of a commercial unit owned by the company.

In 2004, the Deceased signed a letter stating ‘I would like to make a gift to you (the son) of my current loan account with (business name). For the sake of clarity I confirm that this is an outright gift and that the debt will be assigned to you directly. I relinquish all rights to these funds or to making any claims against the company in this regard.’

The £50,000 was paid directly from the company to the son around the same time.

Having read section IHTM19110 of the Inheritance Tax Manual (Waiver of Loans by Deed), I note that waiver of loans has to be by Deed. So initially I thought that the letter would not be acceptable, as it is not a Deed.

However the son says that the loan was effectively repaid (albeit to him directly rather than to the Deceased), and therefore it was simply a gift from the Deceased to him and not a waiver of loan.

The Executors are not in agreement and I do not know the definitive answer. Can anyone shed any light on the situation? Or, if there is no clear answer, what is the best way forward (ie. will the Executors need to litigate until they reach agreement)?

Thank you all.

If the son and the business were separate legal entities at the time the transfer was made, I would be inclined to the view that the transfer to the son could have been a gift, rather than a release of the loan.

However, was the benefit of the loan actually transferred to the son, rather than the deceased merely indicating an intention to make the gift – the letter even says that “the debt will be assigned to you” so that it is not purported to be an assignment in itself.

If there was no actual assignment, I suggest there was no effective gift.

Paul Saunders FCIB TEP

Independent Trust Consultant

Providing support and advice to fellow professionals

I’d agree with the son. Its not likely the loan would be wavied as the loan would then create a corporation tax liability.

Its common for directors to use assignment and novation as a means to transfer the loans liability to a third party (either concept does not require a deed).

Parent assigns the loan to the son. They make a PET - by default a gift.
The company repays son the £50,000.

If it was “wavied” it would sit on the balance sheet.

Richard C. Bishop
PFEP

Snell contains several pages on equitable assignment. From my reading of these and Practical Law, I am 99% certain that this is one such.

It does not matter that there is no notice to the debtor, the company, but if now given it would convert to a legal assignment. Is it too late? Can mother’s PR give it? A moot point I think. No formality is required, not even writing, though an oral assignment must be evidenced somehow. Even a legal assignment only needs writing, not a deed. The intended subject-matter of it is clearly identified here.

Paul rightly draws attention to the ambiguous wording but I think the second sentence in the present tense (" I relinquish all rights to these funds or to making any claims against the company in this regard.") could be construed by a court, equity prioritising substance over form, as being a current rather than future action. This is critical because although a valid equitable assignment does not require consideration an agreement to do so between mother and son, which possibly preceded this letter, does need it and a mere intention to act only in the future is not offer and acceptance nor even a valid gift.

The wording is plainly not a declaration of trust and nor is it a transfer to a trustee so the two Milroy v Lord criteria are not met. There is always the tenuous argument, based on Lady Arden’s speech in Pennington v Waine, that while the mother arguably has not done all in her power (Re Fry as opposed to Re Rose) it would be unconscionable for her to resile. Of course she doubtless never had any such intention.

Once again, DIY and false economy may well have defeated here the intention of a lay person who, had she most implausibly known of s136 LPA 1925, could have easily couched this letter to comply with it by instructing a lawyer. £50,000 plus interest is not a mere bagatelle and probably not so in context. One of my former clients got the hump with me when I unguardedly described a sum ten times greater as “peanuts” (though in his case it was objectively a fair if clumsy comment).

So who cares? Well HMRC. It is analogous to the position they take when it matters on waiver by deed in IHTM19110. It is likely to elicit the sanctimonious view that they have a duty to collect all tax legally due and payable (see Loan Charge crocodile tears passim). They could throw a lifeline by just accepting the wording in context as a valid equitable assignment in law. A case that turns on its facts sets no precedent. But they are stony-hearted, as witness their frequent insistence that the taxpayer must obtain a decision by the Court, an absurd request here if there is no dispute among the son, the company, and the PRs. I would fess up to them that the taxpayer has adopted the analysis in his favour and let them challenge it. If you believe the LSS , which I don’t, then:

"Handling disputes

  1. HMRC will seek, wherever possible, to handle disputes non-confrontationally and by working collaboratively with the customer. In the majority of cases, this is likely to be the most effective and efficient approach. A collaborative approach by all parties requires them to be open, transparent, and focused on resolving the dispute. Working non-confrontationally can offer benefits in terms of effective and efficient dispute resolution in all civil cases. HMRC will foster a non-confrontational approach with the customer, but will not be deterred from efficient and effective dispute resolution by other means if collaboration is not forthcoming". Yeah, right! See especially paragraphs 16-18 and the Commentary on these at https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/media/65a56f8d867cd800135ae8db/HMRC_Resolving_tax_disputes.pdf

Ethically, a lawyer who has not genuinely overlooked the issue cannot be complicit in his client dealing with HMRC by suppressing it and if the client insists he should stop acting. This is a highly invidious position and I sympathise because I have made myself unpopular on many occasions by pointing out unexpectedly some abstruse fly in the ointment. This puts a premium on the salutary practice of MUF (money up front)!

Jack Harper

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Applying a completely non-technical analysis, it seems that the facts show both an intention to make a gift and that the money moved in the way intended by all the relevant parties (mother, son and company). I also presume that the charge was released/removed?. (Again on a non-technical basis) it seems unlikely to be that a Judge would rule against the de facto position established 20 years ago.

If seeking some finality, is there any possible solution under the Limitation Act? An unenforceable loan has no value (and potentially is not a PET either). It may of course depend upon the terms of the loan, but that would be in addition to the technical thoughts of Richard and Jack.

Thank you all very much for taking the time to answer - I greatly appreciate it

Lisa