It is a question of identifying “the land” which then becomes “the relevant land”. Property A is the one in which the father gave a part interest to his daughter, fulfilling the disposal condition: para 3(1) and (2) Sch 15 FA 200. POAT applied in principle to property A but was “exempted” from it because s102B (4) applied: para 11 (5)(c) ibid.
The father’s part interest in Property A is sold to an unconnected party at an arm’s length price and in consequence of that his occupation of Property A terminates. The sale is an “excluded transaction” by virtue of para 5(1)(a) of SI 724/2005 https://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/2005/724/regulation/5/made See IHTM44059.
For IHT the ROB would have ended by father making a PET but for s102B preventing a ROB from ever arising. So the provisions of Sch 20 FA 1986 are not relevant as s102 of that Act was never engaged: s102(8) not applying therefore.
The sale of property A for full consideration prevents a ROB arising in Property B when the sale proceeds are used to buy Property B. Each co-owner buys using their own money and the father goes into occupation. s102B does not apply as there is no gift of an undivided share in Property B so whether the daughter occupies or not and if so on what terms is irrelevant. Nor has he made a gift of the property within s102.
Can POAT apply to Property B which is now “the land”.
1 the disposal condition is not fulfilled. The father has not (yet) made a disposal of his interest in Property B, “the relevant land”
2 the contribution condition is not fulfilled. Has the father provided the daughter (a) directly with any of the consideration for her acquisition of an interest in Property B or (b) directly or indirectly by means of the sale proceeds of an interest in another property (as it might be Property A) other than, in either case, by an excluded transaction?: para 3(3).
Note that “another property” is not necessarily one in respect of which the father fulfilled the disposal or contribution condition although if he did not it is hard to see how he could have provided any part of the sale proceeds, directly or indirectly, to “another party”.
There are 2 arguments for the contribution condition not being met:
1 that it would be odd if the occupation of property A was outside POAT altogether via an exempt transaction yet some part of its sale proceeds could constitute a contribution within POAT to the acquisition of an interest in property B
2 that the daughter obtained her share of the sale proceeds of the interest in Property A given to her by her father by an excluded transaction which negated the disposal condition and the contribution condition was never engaged; as regards the sale of his own share in Property A he used his share of the sale proceeds to buy his own share in Property B and so has not contributed to the acquisition of another interest either by the daughter or the Man in the Moon.
Where the series of transactions is orchestrated if not conditional on each other should that not be left if at all to the GAAR? There is of course no requirement that the parties should have any purpose of tax avoidance.
In Chamberlain and Whitehouse on POAT the authors warn of the possibility that the disposal and contribution conditions can indeed interact. Take the disposal of Blackacre to Y with the donor X continuing in occupation. Y sells it commercially and buys Whiteacre with the sale proceeds which X also occupies. The disposal condition applies to Blackacre and the contribution condition to Whiteacre. But what if the first transaction is “excluded” from POAT? And furthermore, what if the disposal by X is of a part interest and he reinvests the sale proceeds of hos own part interest, perhaps with other money of his own, into a strictly pro rata part interest?
I have to say that the guidance in IHTM is not clearly positive in support or contradiction of the above arguments and because POAT was largely enacted in terrorem litigation has not teased out its application to a typical range of facts because, like Antarctica, everyone knows where it is but no one wants to go and live there. My gut feeling is that a disposal of an interest in one property followed by an arm’s length sale to an unconnected party, an excluded transaction, should not also constitute a contribution to another property through the donee reinvesting just her own share of the sale proceeds in it. The nagging doubt is that the contribution condition can be met by in HMRC’s view by a prior gift of money or anything else which is then sold. See IHTM44036 fourth bullet: where they say that only an outright gift of cash can qualify for the ungenerous exclusion.
The safe harbour would appear to be to assume that s102B needed to be fulfilled in relation to property B and ensure that each part interest was purchased with their respective shares of the sale proceeds and any additional money traceable to their own entirely separate resources.
Jack Harper