A new client came to me to catch up with her income tax affairs for the last four years since she returned to the UK to live from Eire.
She mentioned that she purchased her home in joint names with her daughter.
I suggested that she check with the solicitor to advise whether there has been a gift with reservation or should a POAT be considered.
She subsequently explained that her daughter took out a mortgage on her flat in London and provided about one half of the purchase monies for my clientâs home because there was a delay in the sale of my clientâs previous home in Eire.
When my clientâs previous home was sold she ârepaidâ her daughter but her daughterâs name remains on the title of my clientâs current home.
In the absence of a loan agreement between mother and daughter it seems to me that daughter acquired a half of motherâs house and mother subsequently made a cash gift to her daughter.
Would others agree with this analysis?
As a consequence, would POAT be in point?
If so, what approach should be taken in assessing any liability?
The figures are not large: the house cost about ÂŁ120k and my client has spent another ÂŁ50k or so on improvements; the rental value of the property might not be as much as ÂŁ5k per annum.
Kevin Preston
Amherst & Shapland Limited